Medieval Beer Test

The British Association for the Advancement of Science describes a test that medieval brewers supposedly used to measure how much alcohol was in beer:

To test a fermentation mixture in a brewery, pour onto a wooden seat. Sit in this puddle wearing leather breeches, while drinking more beer. Try to stand up. If breeches stick to seat, the beer will be strong. This method was used by 13th century Ale Conners, mediaeval Customs and Excise Inspectors. The stickier the mixture, the more sugar. This will produce more alcohol, so more duty is payable. Modern methods are more sophisticated, but less fun!

I suppose this would work. But whether or not medieval brewers actually did this, I don't know.

Food

Posted on Sun May 01, 2005



Comments

...Ensure you bring multiple pairs of breeches in case the brewery makes more than one beer.

Sounds bollocks to me.
Posted by Paul in Prague  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  01:04 AM
Maybe it just got harder to stand up because you've had more beers...?
Posted by Tom  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  02:59 AM
Sorry to dispargae, gentlemen, but this indeed is true. Contemporary instructions for ale conners or conyers working for His Majesty's Customs did specify pouring some of the ale upon a stool or bench, preferably oak as it won't absord too much, then sitting on it it non-absorbent leather trousers. If the ale had the right amount of sugars and so forth, it would be sticky enough to lift the seat when the conner stood up. ( From "The FRank Muir Book", a social history of practically everything; This particualr fact from the Bodleian Library records of English civli servants documents.)

Of course, as such ingredients as ammonia, chicken dung and grass clippings were often added to ales in these time sto strengthen them, the sugar and alcohol content were the LEAST of your worries..... :sick:
Posted by DFStuckey  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  03:43 AM
That's stupid.
Posted by Maegan  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  05:48 AM
DFStucky, are you sure that wasn't meant as satire?

There were other ways of measuring the ammount of sugar in the unfermented beer (which is called "wort", by the way) The simple and pretty accurate way that early brewers used (and home brewers like myself use still) was to measure the density of the wort before adding the yeast, and then again after the fermentation is complete. The difference corresponds directly to the ammount of alcohol created by the yeast. Though I suppose the sugar in the wort would make the it sticky, I don't think you could differentiate between two different concentrations by this method.

Sounds like BS to me.
Posted by JoeSixpack  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  07:08 AM
Actually I've heard about this too. In one of those Discovery Channel books. I'd hope the Discovery Channel would be getting most of their facts straight
Posted by Fay-Fay  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  10:24 AM
...I dunno...it just seems like the SUGAR isn't sugar after it's fermented. So, it's not the same syrupy goo that it started out as...
Posted by Maegan  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  12:27 PM
Anybody with much experience can estimate the sugar (or alcohol) content of something pretty accurately by tasting or even just smelling it. I think this "test" is 200-proof bunk.
Posted by Big Gary C in Dallas  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  12:37 PM
The Discovery Channel and related channels have an irregular relationship to the truth. If there's a particular fact you think is fascinating, cross-check it with something else before believing it. I've seen them propagate some doozies.
Posted by cvirtue  on  Mon May 02, 2005  at  02:18 PM
JoeSixPack, you do make some good points. However, I feel I should make some better ones.

Firstly, the conners were doing this test in the field, i.e. in brewerys which were actually public alehouses out in the country, which they travelled to on horseback. They could not carry a lot of equipment - And, recall, this was the 13th century, they didn't HAVE a lot of equipment* - To measure density with. Plus they were testing for overall strength of the finished ale, which included more than the alcohol content.

Lastly, it was not a precision test as to exact percentage of alcohol ( Or even proof, which is twice the alcohol volume ) but just to ensure the stuff wasn't overly watery, nor so powerful as to prevent serfs doing their work through blindness or death.

*Reminds me of a story told by Robert Heinlien: When he wrote the book "Space Cadet" he used a scene where an astronoaut trainee had to perform a tethered jump from a spacecraft. To work out the physics of the movement, he used sheets of butcher's paper for the calcualtions invloved which ran to about three feet worth. When he told this fact to a scientist/fan some time later, the fan was shocke dand asked "Why didn't you use a calculator for such a job? Did you really need all that detail for half a paragraph?" Heinlien recalls "I took a deep breath and said 'Sonny,( And usually I'm in awe of anyone with a PhD, no matter how young ) Remember, I did this in 1948...'."
Posted by DFStuckey  on  Tue May 03, 2005  at  03:44 AM
DFStucky, the equipment for measuring density is not any more complicated than a wooden yardstick with a weight on one end. It works on the same principle that Archemedies discovered 15 centuries before, so it's not like we're talking about something that needs an electrical outlet to use. Pretty easy to carry around, too. Hydrometers were used by brewers back then, so why wouldn't tax collectors use them? Pretty easy to carry around. It would be a hell of a lot more useful for testing than leather trousers. Sorry, it still smells like BS to me.
Posted by JoeSixpack  on  Tue May 03, 2005  at  05:20 PM
I've been to many SCA events, I've seen medieval leather trousers in action. (Though, more's the pity, I've never seen anyone do this test, even though there are brewing demonstrations. Damn.) Leather britches are bulky and heavy; I have no doubt that a yardstick with a weight on one end would be much more easily portable (and easier to clean, too).

>>>The Discovery Channel and related channels have an irregular relationship to the truth. If there's a particular fact you think is fascinating, cross-check it with something else before believing it. I've seen them propagate some doozies.<<<

I know this to be true, and have ever since I saw The History Channel repeat the silly canard about Ring Around The Rosie being about the plague as fact. A good hoax can slip past anyone's fact checkers now and then.
Posted by Barghest  on  Wed May 04, 2005  at  12:36 AM
Well, without anyone actually trusted by all of us to go and actually look at the regualtions in the Bodelian Library, guess we'll never solve this.

All I can say is it's the platypus all over agin 😊
Posted by DFStuckey  on  Wed May 04, 2005  at  03:59 AM
"...Ring Around The Rosie being about the plague as fact"

It isn't? I thought it was. What is it's origin? Please tell me more.

Cheers
Posted by Peter  on  Wed May 04, 2005  at  05:38 AM
Hi Peter.
Snopes does a pretty good coverage of this legend.

http://www.snopes.com/language/literary/rosie.htm
Posted by Boo  on  Wed May 04, 2005  at  05:42 AM
Something else finally yelled at me from my subconcious: men weren't wearing breeches in the 13th century, leather or otherwise.

Everyone was still in tunics! (Dresses, for those of you who aren't historical clothing wonks like myself.) A man might wear a white linen shirt, white linen underwear, wool or linen hosen tied to the shirt or underwear or another layer, and then the outer tunic over all of that. The trends were towards more fitted tunics toward the end of this century, but anything we'd call trousers wouldn't show up until late in the 1400s.

Now, it's remotely possible that this excerpt could demonstrate that *someone* was wearing leather breeches, if it is accurate. But if they were, it's not a style seen in the artwork of the time.
Posted by cvirtue  on  Thu May 05, 2005  at  06:01 AM
Well I never. Gosh, I've learnt something today.

Thank you Boo.
Posted by Peter  on  Thu May 05, 2005  at  06:04 AM
No problem.
😊
Posted by Boo  on  Thu May 05, 2005  at  07:18 AM
And thank YOU, cvirtue. You're right, of course.
Posted by Big Gary C in Dallas  on  Thu May 05, 2005  at  11:04 AM
No. Sugars in suspension *decrease* with fermentation, so "stickiness showing strength" is nonsense. As alcoholic strength goes up, the relative stickiness goes down.

Ale was considered to be *food* in the Middle Ages, not *recreational beverage*. Thus, ale (or beer, for that matter) had to show that there were sufficient nutrients - which at that time translated to mean unfermented sugars - in it to be considered as proper food.

Thus the connors' test. The ale (or beer) was expected to have a certain level of unfermented sugars residual in it; there was a pretty clear expectation that the resultant product would be a "proper food". This is one of the reasons behind the epistles against imported Dutch and German beers in the 14th - 16th centuries.
Posted by Argyle  on  Thu May 05, 2005  at  04:56 PM
No, cvirtue is not right at all, not even close. Men have been wearing breeches for a very long time, way before the 13th century. Just because non-pants alternatives existed, and in some eras were more fashionable, does not mean there were no pants.

And a tunic is not a dress, it's a longish shirt, never used for anything except wearing as a shirt. Hose would sometimes be worn instead of breeches with a tunic, but that's not the same thing.

I'm in the SCA, I'd know. We have to have authentic documentation for everything, and we go back to the late Roman period, and there are pants from all eras.

I know, your common sense says otherwise. Well, common sense is also what tells you the world is flat.
Posted by Barghest  on  Fri May 06, 2005  at  07:39 PM
Barghest, I'd like to know more about your understanding of pants for men in England in the 13th century, since you seem to have information I've never heard of. You (or anyone else who is interested) can reach me via my website, which is http://www.virtue.to
Posted by cvirtue  on  Sat May 07, 2005  at  07:19 AM
Something else is bothering me about this... were there actual commercial breweries in the 13th century? I'm not questioning whether of not beer was sold "commercially" as it was quite clearly sold in taverns, alehouses and the like. However, part of the attraction of one establishment over another was the flavor and quality of the beer and ale. Those were all in-house establishments and even by the 16th century the vast majority of "commercial" brewing, I believe, was done by the Ale Wife, aka the wife of the owner of the establishment (or his widow or daughter or daughter-in-law, as needed). Most people didn't buy much beer by the barrel - they made it at home, it was part of the housewife's basic domestic duties. At the upper end of the social/economic scale you had servants who did you familial brewing for you. Even the Crown had their own brewing houses at each royal residence. I admit that I haven't studied the history of large scale commercial brewing, but given what I do know of beer/ale brewing I would be surprised if there was a large scale brewing industry that was regulated. As far as importing goes... that kind of goes hand in hand with that same question I would think. Wine was imported into England as England isn't exactly great grape growing country (in spite of the Great Vine which dates from Tudor Times and is still growing at Hampton Court Palace). Except for a specialty brew that they couldn't produce at home, I don't see the English importing a lot of beer when they made their own and importing it would only make it more expensive to drink. Hhhmmmm.... Pondering....

EMB in Florida
Posted by E. Bair  on  Mon May 09, 2005  at  10:29 AM
Berghest writes: "I'm in the SCA, I'd know. We have to have authentic documentation for everything"

Um, with all due respect: no. I love the SCA dearly, but there are basically no documentation standards. Just because something is common practice in the Society doesn't necessarily indicate that it's authentic.

Mind, I'm saying this as a longtime Laurel. (As are at least two other posters in this thread.) It's a wonderful organization. But it has plenty of inaccuracies...
Posted by Justin du Coeur  on  Mon May 09, 2005  at  04:17 PM
Well, I perhaps misspoke when I said we "have to" have authentic documentation. We don't. We show up in flame pants and four-buckle boots from Journeys and drink out of beer cans.

But there is always one stickler in every group who actually does credible research and only wears period (that is, historicall accurate) clothing, and everyone else will refer to her if they are in doubt. As a point of personal pride, they know what they are talking about. And I've never, ever had a stickler say anything about pants being non-period. (Though I do get a lot of criticism for my pirate hat.)

And while trousers in the sense of tight-fitting pants with buttons and pockets are a recent innovation, breeches have been around forever, more or less. I know because I regularly wear a blue pair of baggy pants that is historically accurate back to about the first century.

As a further example, jogging pants are actually authentic. People have been wearing loose-fitting cotton breeches with drawstrings since pre-Roman times. You show up wearing nothing but jogging pants, and you're a completely authentic Celt. It's our back-up plan for newbies without garb, actually....male newbies of course.
Posted by Barghest  on  Tue May 10, 2005  at  07:43 PM
Well, the problem is that you can't lump period together like that. Yes, it's true that they had vaguely trouser-ish kinds of things in early period, and that they were wearing trews in the Renaissance. But there's a thousand years in between there, and there were entire centuries in the middle when trousers were *not* being worn. And if cvirtue (one of the Society's better-known garb experts) says that the 13th century was one of them, I'm inclined to believe her. That's really the heart of the disagreement. It isn't that pants aren't *period* -- it's that they're not 13th century European.

You have to remember, a thousand years is an incredibly long time, moreso when you're talking about the entire Western world. The result is that almost any generalization about period is probably wrong in a lot of times and places. Damned near everything was true in some SCA-covered cultures, and false in others. The devil's in the details. That's why most Laurels tend to talk more specifically than simply whether something is period or not...
Posted by Justin du Coeur  on  Tue May 10, 2005  at  08:42 PM
But you do agree that there's a huge difference between saying "People didn't wear pants in this time period" and "People didn't HAVE pants and COULDN'T have pants in this time period because they weren't invented yet", right? It's the difference between the existence of a type of garment and a widespread fashion preference.

People don't wear swords on their belts in this current era. That does not mean that they couldn't if they wanted to, or that they don't have swords at all.

It's true that not all cultures in all times have worn pants. But the idea that pants did not exist before the 1700's is a canard, it's total bunk. The Huns who sacked Rome wore pants, and that was in 410 AD.
Posted by Barghest  on  Tue May 10, 2005  at  11:33 PM
I can't really find a good source on the Net for information on 13th-century pants. (Lots of offhanded mentions....)

Here's the gist of it: you will see pants in a culture whenever horseriding starts to catch on. This makes sense, since it's hard to ride a horse in a long robe or tunic. The result being that pants are usually looked on as garments for the soldiers and lower classes. Royalty would not have worn pants except in battle, which is why it looks like there weren't a lot of pants around--most of the paintings we have to look at from that period are of rich people wearing their best clothes, after all.

Most of the "pants" worn in the 13th century would have been hose, but they would have been made from wool, fit loosely, and coarse. If you saw 13th century hose, you'd think they were jogging pants, and they pretty much were. Hose didn't start getting tight and sheer until the late 14th century, when fashion really started to develop.

It also depends a lot on which region we are talking about. Vikings and the men of Andalusia overwhelmingly favored breeches, as did the horse-riding tribes of Asia and Asia Minor, and all of the Middle East except for the more westernized Levant and Jerusalem regions (thanks to the Crusades). Most of the men who were not wearing pants or breeches of some sort were to be found in Western and Central Europe. Saying they didn't wear pants in 13th century Europe is a lot like saying people don't wear hats in 21st century America--it depends a lot on what region you mean, and the class and profession of the individual.
Posted by Barghest  on  Wed May 11, 2005  at  12:39 AM
wow i never expected to find a discussion about breeches being in period on a site like this! while its all wonderful information for an sca noob like myself, the whole idea of sitting in a puddle of ale to test it for anything sounds absolutely insane! :ahhh:
Posted by cybermonkey  on  Wed May 11, 2005  at  04:25 AM
"But you do agree that there's a huge difference between saying "People didn't wear pants in this time period" and "People didn't HAVE pants and COULDN'T have pants in this time period because they weren't invented yet", right? It's the difference between the existence of a type of garment and a widespread fashion preference."

Actually, that's not so clear. Remember, you're talking about an era with significantly poorer communication than we have today. Just because someone knew about it somewhere doesn't mean that it was known elsewhere and/or elsewhen. Vast amounts of information were just plain *lost* in period, and cross-culture communication was spotty, at best.

In general, one the Society's most common fallacies is to put too much weight on the concept of invention. People in period *could* have had an enormous fraction of what we have today, especially when it comes to matters of culture. Most things weren't a matter of knowing how to do them -- rather, they were matters of taste. That's why we have to focus on what they *did* have in particular times and places, or it just turns into a jumbled mess.

Nor should you underestimate the effect of "fashion". I mean, I *could* wear an Italian tunic and hose today, but I'd get strange looks at best. In practice, it simply doesn't happen outside contexts like ours. Fashion is deeply pervasive in all cultures, and outliers are generally rare -- in most cultures even more than our current one. And remember that the discussion is of what the ale masters *normally* did.

As for hose -- yep, that sounds right. But so far, it still mostly supports the original contention: that the story that started this off is inconsistent with what we know about 13th century Western European men's clothing. Is it possible? Sure. Is it *likely*? I'm still unconvinced...
Posted by Justin du Coeur  on  Wed May 11, 2005  at  07:02 AM
People have been wearing loose-fitting cotton breeches with drawstrings since pre-Roman times. You show up wearing nothing but jogging pants, and you're a completely authentic Celt.
Never mind the sartorial disputes, there's a problem of basic botany here: cotton does not grow in Northern Europe. That's why the English settlers turned Georgia into cotton plantations, remember?
I don't doubt Egyptian cotton was imported into some parts of Europe, in some eras; but it wouldn't have been cheap, and it probably wouldn't have been been used by the sort of poverty-stricken Celt who would go around without a shirt. This isn't to say that I'd turn up my nose at cotton garb in the SCA; but that's just because linen is so much more expensive these days. But "Cotton is a decent first approximation for linen" and "some Celts had linen" does not imply "Celts had cotton".
Posted by John Stracke  on  Wed May 11, 2005  at  07:10 AM
Here's a summary of what scholars know about pants-like things in the middle ages. All of these are underwear.

http://www.personal.utulsa.edu/~marc-carlson/cloth/trousers/breechesindex.htm
Posted by cvirtue  on  Wed May 11, 2005  at  12:36 PM
Since I am interested in this story of a conner's pants and have heard it in numerous less-than-scholarly sources (childrens books, broadcast media, and SCA "afficionados" ect)and have heard several variations on it including its orgin (cited in many places as not only English, but at times German, Dutch, or Danish) and have heard various goals of the trouser test. Descrepencies include whether it is to ensure the high sugar content of the wort, and thereby its sufficient strength, or wheter it is to test the finished ale as overly sweet, or under fermented.

I noticed we have become tangled in a disscussion on of all things pants, which I think is a rather round about way to come at this discussion as verifyable or not.

As toward the trouser debate, I can say with confidence that trousers, and hosen were both availible to the medieval man in the 13th century. Pants wearing remains strong with the Nordic countries well into and past the Viking period. While surviving examples tend to be from the pagan era of bog burials (Christian burials not being the best for the preservation of clothing) and can be seen in good effect with the pair found in the Thorsbjerg dig, literary references continue. Now I acknowledge many of you have in mind visual evidence of various illuminations that do indeed show a definded shift toward the short tunic, especially among the peasant class in France. Many such illumiations (you needn't look further than the famous Bayeux piece) also show a hose or trouser worn under the tunic which is difficult to ascertain its material. Further there is also strong written sources that refer to hose and trousers. One such work the "King's Mirror" ca 1250 [one that I am working with as I write this] (If you are a student of Old Norwegian or Old Norse check out http://www.menota.org or I googled up a decent english copy here http://www.mediumaevum.com/75years/mirror/ )
Posted by J Hipsman  on  Sun May 22, 2005  at  11:33 AM
The Kings mirror is a guide written most likely to young nobles in the form of a dialouge between son and father. In section XXX dedicated to approaching the king's court the father advises:

"Your costume you should plan beforehand in such a way that you come fully dressed in good apparel, the smartest that you have, and wearing fine trousers and shoes. You must not come without your coat; and also wear a mantle, the best that you have. For trousers always select cloth of a brown dye. It seems quite proper also to wear trousers of black fur, but not of any other sort of cloth, unless it be scarlet. Your coat should be of brown color or green or red, and all such clothes are good and proper. Your linen should be made of good linen stuff, but with little cloth used; your shirt should be short, and all your linen rather light. Your shirt should be cut somewhat shorter than your coat; for no man of taste can deck himself out in flax or hemp. Before you enter the royal presence be sure to have your hair and beard carefully trimmed according to the fashions of the court when you join the same. When I was at court it was fashionable to have the hair trimmed short just above the earlaps and then combed down as each hair would naturally lie; but later it was cut shorter in front above the eyebrows. It was the style at that time to wear a short beard and a small mustache; but later the cheeks were shaved according to the German mode; and I doubt that any style will ever come which is more becoming or more suitable in warfare. "

Continuing in section XXXVIII on warfare the father describes the dress suitiable for war

"The rider himself should be equipped in this wise: he should wear good soft breeches made of soft and thoroughly blackened linen cloth, which should reach up to the belt; outside these, good mail hose which should come up high enough to be girded on with a double strap; over these he must have good trousers made of linen cloth of the sort that I have already described; finally, over these he should have good knee-pieces madeof thick iron and rivets hard as steel. Above and next to the body he should Wear a soft gambison, which need not come lower than to the middle of, the thigh. Over this he must have a strong breastplate made of good iron covering the body from the nipples to the trousers belt; outside this, a well-made hauberk and over the hauberk a firm gambison made in the manner which I have already described but without sleeves."

Note the distinction made in the text between the undergarments <translated here as breeches> and the outer garments <trousers>. While this is the only example I have at hand this moment to quote, there are a number of descriptions of such clothing scattered through out Scandinavian vernacular writings in the 12th 13th, and 14th centuries (my field of study).
Posted by J Hipsman  on  Sun May 22, 2005  at  11:35 AM
Continued from above
Now I can hear you out there ready to jump on the Scandinavian vs English issue, but I call into play my own uncertainty of this myth's orgin and point out the extremly strong ties of the Norwegian court of the 13th century and the Angevins in terms of intertrade. While it is true that the fasions of the continent spread more rapidly to Post-conquest England, broad dismissal of pants wearing especialy in northern climates of the Brittish Iles, where the chill dictates leg coverings, and further in those areas more touched by the Norse influence such as the Danelaw seem rather radical.

The trousers aside I ask whether anybody might be able to find a reference in a book they might have to the parent document. I see that the Bodleian Library was mentioned earlier. I was wondering if a specific section of the rolls was noted. (Sounds like a promising summer field trip in the offing).
Posted by J Hipsman  on  Sun May 22, 2005  at  11:37 AM
Bloody hell, hipsman, keen or what?

Interesting, I'll grant - seems to blow the 'no trousers' theory out of the water though frankly have you nothing more constructive to do with your time?.

I still say the test itself is a load of cobblers, though.
Posted by Paul in Prague  on  Mon May 23, 2005  at  02:41 AM
A pub in London still carries out the leather britches test in a ceremony attended by the Lord Mayor of London.I forget the pubs name but I was told of this recently during a lecture on the origin og pub signs and their meaning.
Posted by BurlingtonBertie  on  Fri Jul 08, 2005  at  05:13 AM
Sorry but 'Ring a ring a roses' was to do with the plague and each of the lines has a meaning relevant to the plague. Trust me I am a tour guide. Oh and 'One over the Eight' refers to the ale which everyone, including very young babies, drank (they drank a weak form of ale called Tillywilly ale).
Posted by Gwen Zanzottera  on  Sat Jan 13, 2007  at  08:48 AM
Gwen, you may be a tour guide, but try reading everything first before claiming you're correct because of your job. There's a link on the first page of this thread discrediting the nursery rhyme link with the plague.
Posted by Smerk  on  Sat Jan 13, 2007  at  10:37 PM
The comment about being a tour guide (which I am) was meant to be facetious. I learnt at school about ring a ring a roses being connected with the plague and also the meaning of each line. If this is not true, then where does it come from, given that most nursery rhymes had a basis in politics or folklore? A lot of valid authorities still quote this as a fact.
Posted by Gwen Zanzottera  on  Sun Jan 14, 2007  at  05:05 AM
Gwen, it might be better to ask where the evidence is that supports the Ring o' Roses/Black Death connection - that is, beyond the imaginative speculation of James Leaser in 1961 (that's the attribution I've heard for the supposed link). The fact that earlier versions of the rhyme differ substantially from the current form and in ways that do not support the plague link is pretty stong evidence against Leaser's hypothesis.

There are also some questionable 'facts' in the Ring o' Roses explanation in any case. For example, accounts generally claim that the 'posy' refers to bundles of aromatic herbs or suchlike, supposedly carried around to ward off humours. However, at the time of the Black Death a 'posy' primarily meant a line of poetry written to be inscribed inside a ring. Thus in the Diary of Samuel Pepys we have:

...the mutton came in raw, and so we were fain to stay the stewing of it. In the meantime we sat studying a Posy for a ring for her which she is to have at Roger Pepys his wedding.

There is no mention of 'posy' (or alternative spellings 'poesy', 'posey', or 'posie') as referring to any concoction of herbs in Pepys's diary of the plague (the OED refers to the contemporaneous appearance of 'posy' for a bunch of flowers through association with 'the language of flowers', but that etymology suggests it was probably not used prosaically). He (Pepys) refers to being given 'a bottle of Plague-water', preseumably as a sovereign remedy against infection; he also refers to an order of 'plaister and fume' being interpreted as suggesting infection in a house; but there are no references to anything fitting the description of a posy. Beyond Pepys' account, I'm not sure where to look for the evidence of such things...
Posted by outeast  on  Mon Jan 15, 2007  at  02:36 AM
The yardstick wasnt in production until 1740 - so a stick with a weight on the end wasnt used. Bear in mind this was an important task (important enough for the King to send a bunch of leather clad bear jockeys out to gether taxes and the like)

I have also heard this story before and read it in a book called 'The Science of Measurement' - which (appears) to be one of the more credable sources for this story (I got the book from the Ciba Geigy's R&D;Library in Basel Switzerland)
Posted by Timspin  on  Fri Dec 21, 2007  at  03:46 PM
Commenting is not available in this channel entry.